Regardless of the form of the set $S,$ this is actually fairly straightforward to prove, using basic topology results.
Consider the function $f:\Bbb C\to\Bbb R$ given by $$f(z)=|z+i|-|z-1|.$$ One can show that $f$ is continuous, which I leave to you, and that $$S=\{z\in\Bbb C:f(z)>0\},$$ which again I leave to you. Put another way, $$S=f^{-1}\bigl[(0,\infty)\bigr]:=\bigl\{z\in\Bbb C:f(z)\in(0,\infty)\bigr\}.$$ Since $f:\Bbb C\to\Bbb R$ is continuous and $(0,\infty)$ is open in $\Bbb R,$ what can we then say about $S$?
If you have no earthly idea what I'm talking about, let me know, and I'll try to clear things up for you.
Added: Let's explore this a bit further, using the familiar (but a bit tedious) definition of continuity:
If $z_0\in\Bbb C$ and $g:\Bbb C\to\Bbb C,$ we say that $g$ is continuous at $z_0$ if $$\forall\epsilon>0,\exists\delta>0:\bigl(|z-z_0|<\delta\bigr)\implies\bigl(|g(z)-g(z_0)|<\epsilon\bigr).$$ We say that such a $g$ is a continuous function if it is continuous at all $z_0\in E.$ Put another way: $$\forall z\in \Bbb C,\forall\epsilon>0,\exists\delta>0:\bigl(|w-z|<\delta\bigr)\implies\bigl(|g(w)-g(z)|<\epsilon\bigr).$$
Well, that's all pretty messy looking. How does it help? There are a few steps to take.
First, we prove that the function $f$ described above is continuous. (The proof is basically just several applications of the triangle inequality, and is a very good exercise. Let me know if you get stuck, or if you just want to bounce your thoughts off somebody.)
Next, we note/prove that $S$ is precisely the set of all $z\in\Bbb C$ for which $f(z)>0.$
Next, we want to use these fact to show that $S$ is open, but it may not seem clear how this is possible! The kicker is to translate continuity into terms of open sets. Well, since $f:\Bbb C\to\Bbb R$ is continuous, that means $$\forall z\in\Bbb C,\forall\epsilon>0,\exists\delta>0:\bigl(|w-z|<\delta\bigr)\implies\bigl(|f(w)-f(z)|<\epsilon\bigr),$$ which can instead be put as $$\forall z\in\Bbb C,\forall\epsilon>0,\exists r>0:\bigl(w\in D(z;r)\bigr)\implies\bigl(|f(w)-f(z)|<\epsilon\bigr).$$ (Do you see why?) From this, it follows (since $S\subseteq\Bbb C$ that $$\forall z\in S,\forall\epsilon>0,\exists r>0:\bigl(w\in D(z;r)\bigr)\implies\bigl(|f(w)-f(z)|<\epsilon\bigr).$$ Note moreover that for all $z\in S,$ we have $f(z)>0,$ so it follows that $$\forall z\in S,\exists r>0:\bigl(w\in D(z;r)\bigr)\implies\bigl(|f(w)-f(z)|<f(z)\bigr).$$
Now, you should be able to show that if $|f(w)-f(z)|<f(z),$ then $f(w)>0.$ Hence, we have $$\forall z\in S,\exists r>0:\bigl(w\in D(z;r)\bigr)\implies(f(w)>0).$$ Can you justify the above claims and take it from there?