I recently learnt about relative homologies and am wondering if the following is true:
Statement: Let $X$ be a path-connected topological space and $A$ be a non-empty subspace of $X$. Then $H_0(X, A)=0$.
My argument is this: We need to show that the map $\bar \partial:C_1(X)/C_1(A)\to C_0(X)/C_0(A)$ is surjective.
So let $x+C_0(A)$ be an arbitrary member of $C_0(X)/C_0(A)$. Let $a\in A$ be arbitrary. Since $X$ is path-connected, there is a path $\gamma:I\to X$ such that $\gamma(1)=x$ and $\gamma(0)=a$.
Now $\bar \partial(\gamma+C_1(A))=\gamma(1)-\gamma(0)+C_0(A)=x-a+C_0(A)$. But since $a\in A$, we have $x-a+C_0(A)=x+C_0(A)$. Thus $x+C_0(A)$ is in the image of $\bar\partial$, meaning $\bar\partial$ is surjective.
Is the statement correct? If not, then can someone please point out an error in the argument? Thanks.