Since the other answer doesn't use induction, here's an induction proof.
Base case: We use the smallest value for $n$ and check that the form works. The smallest value is $n=1$, in this case, the sum on the LHS is
$$
\sum_{k=1}^1\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\frac{1}{1(1+1)}=\frac{1}{2}.
$$
Also, the RHS is
$$
\frac{1}{1+1}=\frac{1}{2}.
$$
Since the LHS and the RHS are equal, the claim holds when $n=1$.
Inductive case: We assume that the claim is true for $n=m$ and prove the claim is true for $n=m+1$. Therefore, we have assumed that
$$
\sum_{k=1}^m\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\frac{m}{m(m+1)}
$$
and we can use this fact as if it were true.
We want to prove that the statement is true when $n=m+1$, in other words, when
$$
\sum_{k=1}^{m+1}\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\frac{m+1}{(m+1)(m+2)}.
$$
We can't use this statement because it's the next one (the one we want to prove).
We can, however, use the inductive hypothesis to build up to the next step. Since
$$
\sum_{k=1}^m\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\frac{m}{m(m+1)}
$$
we observe that the sum on the LHS is almost the sum that we need for the next case. What's missing from the sum on the LHS is the $m+1$-st term. In other words, we are missing the case where we plug in $m+1$ for $k$ which is $\frac{1}{(m+1)(m+1)}$.
WARNING: The OP added $(m+1)$ to both sides and not the $m+1$-st term.
If we add this term to both sides we get
$$
\frac{1}{(m+1)(m+2)}+\sum_{k=1}^m\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\frac{m}{m(m+1)}+\frac{1}{(m+1)(m+2)}.
$$
The LHS is just the sum
$$
\sum_{k=1}^{m+1}\frac{1}{k(k+1)}$$
and the RHS simplifies to the fraction
$$
\frac{m+1}{(m+1)(m+2)}.
$$
This proves the claim when $n=m+1$.
Then, by the PMI, the claim is true for all integers $n\geq 1$.