Show that $A\subseteq B$ if and only if for any set $C$, one has $(A\cup C)\subseteq (B\cup C)$
$\exists x\in A\cup C \land \exists x\in B\cup C$
$(\exists x\in A\lor \exists x\in C) \land (\exists x\in B\lor \exists x\in C)$
$(\exists x\in A\land \exists x\in B) \lor (\exists x\in C)$
How do i show that $(\forall x\in A\land \exists x\in B) \equiv A\subseteq B$ can i infer this is true?
Then i'm stuck. Or is my argument even correct for that better?