If n is a prime no. Is it necessary that $2^n - 1$ is also a prime no. I know that the converse is true, but i want to know about this statement. If it's wrong plz. Give an eg. If its right plz. Prove it.
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1False probably for most primes $n$. Smallest counterexample is $n=11$. – André Nicolas Sep 08 '15 at 06:35
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Plz guys I am not that good in Maths plz. Be soft. Thnx for your answers – Display name Sep 08 '15 at 06:38
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https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mersenne_prime – Muhammad Alkarouri Sep 08 '15 at 07:20