Suppose we have a claim: $A = \bigcup_{k \in \mathbb N} [-k, \frac{1}{k}) = (-\infty,1)$ = B. I aim to prove this by showing that the two sets are subsets of each other (i.e. $A \subset B$ and $B \subset A$).
As for my strategy of showing this, I am going to grab an arbitrary element from the set A and show that this also belongs to B and vice versa.
Now, my problem is that although I can easily show this in picture, I lack the mathematical argument that describes this picture in my head. Any suggestions?