$G$ is a finite group of order $n$ and the equivalence relation on $G$ is $$x\equiv y\quad \text{iff}\quad (x)=(y)$$
Given that for any divisor $d$ of $n$ , $G$ has at most one cyclic subgroup of order $d$ . Let the equivalence class of $x$ be denoted by $C(x)$. Since equivalence relation $$|G|=\sum |C(x)|$$ where the sum runs over all the elements of $G$.
Since $$|C(x)| \le \phi(d) \ \ \ \ \text{and} \ \ \ \ n=\sum_{d|n} \phi(d)$$ we can write $$n=\sum |C(x)| \le \sum_{d|n} \phi(d) =n $$ i.e. $$\sum |C(x)|= \sum_{d|n} \phi(d)$$
Now what I do not get is how this last equation can imply that number of cyclic subgroups , that was said to be "at most one" is actually "exactly one" . Thanks for any help.