$\renewcommand{\p}{\partial}$
HINT:
Recall that any set of linearly independent functions has non zero Wronskian.
\begin{align}
\forall c_{1}, c_{2} \ldots, c_n \in \mathbb R \quad
c_{1} g_{1}\left(x\right) + c_{2} g_{2}\left(x\right) + \ldots + c_{n} g_{n}\left(x\right) \not\equiv 0
\impliedby
W\big( g_{1}, g_{2}, \ldots, g_{n} \big)
\not \equiv 0
\end{align}
Recall also Leibniz formula for differentiation under the integral with variable limits:
$$
\frac{d}{dx}\left(
\int_{a\left(x\right)}^{b\left(x\right)} f\big(x,t\big)\, dt \right)
= f\big(x,b\left(x\right)\big) \cdot b'\left(x\right)
- f\big(x,b\left(x\right)\big) \cdot a'\left(x\right)
+ \int_{a\left(x\right)}^{b\left(x\right)}
\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\,f\left(x,t\right)\, dt
$$
In your particular case
\begin{align}
g_{i} \left(x\right) = \int_{0}^{1} f_{i} \left(x,y\right) \,d y
\implies
\frac{d\,g_i}{dx} = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial\,}{\partial x}\Big( f_i\left(x,y\right) \Big)\,d y
\implies
\frac{d^{k}g_i}{dx} = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial^{k}\,}{\partial x^{k}} \Big( f_i\left(x,y\right) \Big)\,d y,
\end{align}
for $\,k = 1, \,\ldots,\, n-1\,$ under assumption that functions $\,f_{i}\,$ have $\,n-1\,$ derivatives.
In order for a set of functions $\,g_{1}, \ldots, g_{n}\,$ we require the non-zero Wronskian
\begin{align}
W =
\begin{vmatrix}
g_{1} & g_{2} & \cdots & g_{n} \\
g_{1}^{\left(1\right)} & g_{2}^{\left(1\right)} &\cdots& g_{n}^{\left(1\right)}\\
g_{1}^{\left(2\right)} & g_{2}^{\left(2\right)} &\cdots& g_{n}^{\left(2\right)}\\
\vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots\\
g_{1}^{\left(n-1\right)} & g_{2}^{\left(n-1\right)} & \cdots & g_{n}^{\left(n-1\right)}
\end{vmatrix} =
\begin{vmatrix}
\int_{0}^{1} f_{1} \,dy
& \int_{0}^{1} f_{2}\,dy
& \cdots
& \int_{0}^{1} f_{n}\,dy
\\
\int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial \,f_{1} }{\partial x }\,dy
& \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial \,f_{2} }{\partial x}\,dy
& \cdots
& \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial \,f_{n} }{\partial x}\,dy
\\
\vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots\\
\int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial^{n-2}\,f_{1} }{\partial x^{n-2}}\,dy
& \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial^{n-2}\,f_{2} }{\partial x^{n-2}}\,dy
& \cdots
& \int_{0}^{1} \frac{\partial^{n-2}\,f_{n} }{\partial x^{n-2}}\,dy
\end{vmatrix}
\not \equiv 0
\end{align}
Nonzero Wronski determinant is nonzero means that the column vectors of the matrix are linearly independent.
Hope you can pick it from here.