Let $g_n(\vec{x}) = \sum_{i=1}^n f(x_i)$.
Define the domain $D = \{ \vec{x} \in (0,1]^n | \sum_{i=1}^n x_i = 1\}$
I claim that $g_n$ has a global minimum for $D$ at $x_i = 1/n$ (for all $i$). Indeed, consider a point $\chi_1=(x_1,\ldots, x_i, \ldots, x_j, \ldots, x_n)$ with $x_i \not = x_j$.
Then it is straightforward to show that
$g_n(\chi_1) \ge g_n(x_1,\ldots, \frac{x_i+x_j}{2},\ldots, \frac{x_i+x_j}{2},\ldots, x_n)$. We show this below. So the only point $\chi_0$ in the domain that isn't minimized by another point, is the point in $D$ that isn't changed by averaging any two of its components. This means that all the components of $\chi_0$ are equal to each other and equal to $1/n$. It is a matter of algebra show that $g_n(\chi_0)= n f(1/n) = \frac{n^{q+1}}{n^{q-p}-1}$.
I claim that $f(\alpha - x) + f(x)$ is minimized for $x = \alpha/2$, from which the claim follows. It is just tedious calculus and algebra to show that $\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\left( f(\alpha - x) + f(x)\right)\bigg|_{x=\alpha/2}=0$ and that $\frac{\mathrm{d}^2}{\mathrm{d}x^2}(f(\alpha-x)+f(x)) \bigg|_{x=\alpha/2} >0.$
Edit #1. I severely underreported the tedium in checking the second derivative test. Replace the above claim with the following.
I claim that for $\alpha \in (0,1)$, $f(\alpha/2 -\delta) + f(\alpha/2+\delta)$ is minimized at $\delta = 0$, from which that main claim follows. Indeed, we have
$$\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}\delta} (f(\alpha/2-\delta) + f(\alpha/2+\delta))=-\frac{q \left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta \right)^{q-1}-p \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}-\delta \right)^{p-1}}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta
\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta \right)^q\right)^2}-\frac{p
\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta \right)^{p-1}-q \left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta
\right)^{q-1}}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta
\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta \right)^q\right)^2}.$$ This can be evaluated at $\delta = 0$ as yielding $0$.
For the second derivative test, we have
$$
\begin{align*}
\frac{\mathrm{d}^2}{\mathrm{d}\delta^2} &(f(\alpha/2-\delta) + f(\alpha/2+\delta))= &\\
&\frac{2 \left(q \left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta \right)^{q-1}-p
\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta
\right)^{p-1}\right)^2}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta
\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta \right)^q\right)^3}-\frac{(p-1) p
\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta \right)^{p-2}-(q-1) q \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}-\delta \right)^{q-2}}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta
\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}-\delta \right)^q\right)^2}\\
&-\frac{(p-1) p
\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta \right)^{p-2}-(q-1) q \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}+\delta \right)^{q-2}}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta
\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta \right)^q\right)^2}+\frac{2 \left(p
\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta \right)^{p-1}-q \left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta
\right)^{q-1}\right)^2}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta
\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}+\delta \right)^q\right)^3}
\end{align*}
$$
Evaluating this at $\delta = 0$ we have
$$
\begin{align*}
\frac{\mathrm{d}^2}{\mathrm{d}\delta^2} &(f(\alpha/2-\delta) + f(\alpha/2+\delta))\bigg|_{\delta = 0} = \\
&\frac{2 \left(q \left(\frac{\alpha }{2}\right)^{q-1}-p
\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}\right)^{p-1}\right)^2}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}\right)^q\right)^3}-\frac{(p-1) p
\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}\right)^{p-2}-(q-1) q \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^{q-2}}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^q\right)^2}\\
&-\frac{(p-1) p \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^{p-2}-(q-1) q \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^{q-2}}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha }{2 }\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^q\right)^2}+\frac{2 \left(p \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^{p-1}-q \left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^{q-1}\right)^2}{\left(\left(\frac{\alpha
}{2}\right)^p-\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}\right)^q\right)^3}\\
&= T_1+T_2+T_3+T_4
\end{align*}
$$
Now, $T_1 = T_4>0$ since their numerators are both the squares of something, and their denominators are both positive. Indeed, we have
$$\left(\frac{\alpha}{2}\right)^p - \left(\frac{\alpha}{2}\right)^q = \left(\frac{\alpha}{2} \right)^p\left(1- \left(\frac{\alpha}{2} \right)^{q-p}\right)>0. $$ Finally, since $T_2=T_3$ has the same sign as it's numerator, we only have to show that
$$(1-p)p\left(\frac{\alpha}{2} \right)^{p -2} + (q-1)q\left( \frac{\alpha}{2} \right)^{q-2}>0. $$ This follows immediately because $0<p<1$ and $q>1$. Note: We never use that $-1< p-q$, so it appears that this condition can be relaxed.