This link is my previous attempt to prove this.
Question: if $\displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{f(n)}{g(n)}=0$, then $f(n)$ is $o(g(n))$.
My proof:
$\displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{f(n)}{g(n)}=0$
$\Rightarrow$ $\displaystyle{0}\le{\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{f(n)}{g(n)}}\lt{c}$ , $\forall{c}\gt{0}$
$\Rightarrow$ ${0}\le{\frac{\displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}f(n)}{\displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}g(n)}}\lt{c}$ , $\forall{c}\gt{0}$, $f$ and $g$ is real-valued function
$\Rightarrow$ $\displaystyle{0}\le{\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}{f(n)}}\lt{c\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}g(n)}$ , $\forall{c}\gt{0}$, $f$ and $g$ is real-valued function
$\Rightarrow$ $\displaystyle{0}\le{f(n)}\lt{{c}\cdot{g(n)}}$ , $\forall{c}\gt{0}$, $f$ and $g$ is real-valued function , $\forall{n}\ge{N}$, where N is big enough.
$\Rightarrow$ $\displaystyle{0}\le{f(n)}\lt{{c}\cdot{g(n)}}$ , $\forall{c}\gt{0}$, $\forall{n}\ge{N}$, $\exists{N\gt0}$
$\Rightarrow$ $f(n)\in{o(g(n))}$ $(\because o(g(n))\equiv\{f(x):\forall c>0, \exists n_0>0$ s.t. $0\le f(n)\lt cg(n), \forall n\ge n_0\})$
$\Rightarrow$ $f(n)=o(g(n))$
$\therefore$ if $\displaystyle\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{f(n)}{g(n)}=0$, then $f(n)$ is $o(g(n))$.
Is there any problem in my proof process?
I extremely want to prove this [rigorously and mathematically].
Thank you for reading.