The question is simple: given $\sum_i e_i \equiv e \mod m$, what do we know about $g^{\sum_i e_i} \mod m$? I know it's certainly not always $g^e \mod m$ as the following counterexample shows:
Let $e_1 = 2, e_2 = 3, m = 5, g = 2$,
$g^{e_1} \equiv 4 \mod 5$
$g^{e_2} \equiv 3 \mod 5$
$e_1 + e_2 \equiv 0 \mod 5$ but $g^{e_1+e_2} \equiv 2 \mod 5$, not $1$.
I wonder can we say anything about $g^{\sum_i e_i} \mod m$, just given $\sum_i e_i \equiv e \mod m$? Or under what assumption we can have $g^{\sum_i e_i} \equiv g^e \mod m$? Thanks!