I can't seem to figure out how to get the result shown below. Can someone please help me understand how to get this result?
$$P(red>0,black>0)=\sum_{r=1}^2\left(\sum_{b=1}^2\frac{\binom2r\binom2b\binom{26}{4-r-b}}{\binom{30}4}\right)=\frac{281}{5481}$$
(Original image here.)
So, step by step, here is my math:
- The result of the first Sigma is $3$
- The result of the second Sigma is also $3$
- The numbers for the numerator are $2\cdot 2\cdot 325=\binom21\binom21\binom{26}2$, giving a result of $1300$
- The result for the denominator is $27405=\binom{30}4$
- Now, multiplying 3 times the fraction $= \frac{3\cdot1300}{1\cdot27405}=\frac{3900}{27405}$.
- So, now all that is left is $3$ times the fraction $3900/27405$, which results in $\frac{3\cdot 3900}{1\cdot 27405} = \frac{11700}{27405}$.
It's obvious that somehow, somewhere my math computing the numerator is wrong. I can see that $5481$ is the result of dividing $27405$ by $5$, but how the numerator result is supposed to be $281$ completely eludes me.
Can someone please be so kind and tell me where I went wrong? Much appreciated!
So, the chance of having at least one red and at least one black when grabbing 4 random balls from the urn, is ~5.12%. Is this correct? (It seems so low, considering the fact that we also included the case of drawing 2 red and 1 black, or 2 black and 1 red, and even 2 black and 2 red)
– Jürgen Oct 05 '15 at 22:21