I'm preparing for a calculus exam and came across this limit:
$$\lim_{x \to 1}{(2-x)}^{\tan(\pi/2)x}$$
Of course $\tan(\pi/2)$ is undefined, but the excercise was a multiple choice with options $\infty$, 0, e, $e^\pi$ and $e^{2/\pi}$
So WolframAlpha says $\tan(\pi/2)$ is $\infty$, I figured this is a $1^\infty$ indeterminate and first tried to rewrite it like this:
$$ \lim_{x \to 1}{(1+(1-x))}^{(1-x)^{-1}(1-x)\tan(\pi/2)x} $$
And I have $$\lim_{x \to 1}{(1+(1-x))}^{(1-x)^{-1}}=e$$
But then I got stuck trying to calculate $$\lim_{x \to 1}(1-x)\tan(\pi/2)x$$
I've also tried other methods but everything I try I end up stuck in a similar situation. Also, all the ways I can think of to calculate this limit seem too far-fetched (including the one above).
So, is the excercise wrong? If it's undefined, is it because of $\tan(\pi/2)$ or is there some other argument?