The 2 dimensional Fourier transform of a function $f$ is defined like $$ \mathbb{F}_2 f(x,y) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x,y) \exp(-i(X x + Yy)) dx dy$$ I know that in the one dimensional case, we have $$\mathbb{F}_1 f'(X) = iX \mathbb{F}_1 f(X)$$ , is it possible to derive a term $V$ so that $$ \mathbb{F}_2 (\frac{ df(x,y)}{dx}) = V \mathbb{F}_2 (f(x,y)) ?$$
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remember than bidimentional Fourier is just Fourier_x applied on Fourier_y. – Fabrice NEYRET Oct 09 '15 at 21:21
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Ok, it is all clear now, thank you – Koen Oct 10 '15 at 13:29