I am struggling to see the meaning behind the theorem's statement, which is:
Let $K\subset \mathbb R^n, K\neq \emptyset$ be a convex set and $x\not\in \text{clo}(K)$. Then there is $\gamma \in \mathbb R^n, \gamma \neq 0$ such that $$\inf\{ \langle\gamma, y \rangle: y\in K\} > \langle \gamma, x \rangle$$
I know what the actual geometric interpretation's supposed to be, but I fail to see how this theorem describes it. The intepretation is the following:
There exists a half space $H=\{x\in \mathbb R^n: \langle \gamma, x \rangle \geq c \}$ such that $K\subset H$ and the point $y$ has a positive distance from $H$
I played around with the inner product and the definition of a half space ($\{x: \langle x,y \rangle \geq c \}$) and a hyperplane ($\{x: \langle x,y \rangle = c \}$) and got to understand the geometric interpretation of inner product a bit more, but I am still unable to see how this theorem states what it states.
Thank you.