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Suppose $M^{n+1}$ is a closed connected smooth manifold and $N^n$ is a closed connected smooth embedded submanifold of $M^{n+1}$.

What's the weakest condition under which the Jordan-Brower separation theorem hold?

Namely, $M^{n+1}\backslash N^n$ has exactly two connected components, that share $N^n$ as their common boundary. I think a simple connectedness condition suffices. But does a weaker set of conditions work? How about $H_1(M^{n+1},Z)=0$? And could you give me some reference? Many thanks!

王文龙
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  • You must look a condition the homology class of $N^n$ is trivial. This is the case if $N^n$ bounded a contractible open set and I believe it is the condition in dimension 2 – Tsemo Aristide Oct 17 '15 at 23:08
  • If $N^n$ is a sphere and its class in $\pi_1(M)$ is trivial then $M-N$ have two connected components – Tsemo Aristide Oct 17 '15 at 23:15
  • But if $M^{n+1}$ is $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$, then the proposition is true without extra assumption on the topology of $N^n$, so I wonder if the homology condition of $N^n$ is necessary. – 王文龙 Oct 17 '15 at 23:17
  • Thanks Tsemo Aristide, is $\pi_1$ vanishing is the weakest condition? And could give me some references to learn about? – 王文龙 Oct 17 '15 at 23:20
  • The condition concerns $\pi_{n-1}$ not $\pi_1$. There was a mistake in my previous comment. If the class of $N$ vanishes, $N$ retracts to a point thus bounds a contractible open subset? – Tsemo Aristide Oct 17 '15 at 23:27

2 Answers2

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For any closed connected submanifold $N \subset M$ of codimension 1 to separate $M$, it suffices that $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2) = 0$. To avoid annoying difficulties I will assume $\text{dim } M \geq 2$.

For pick a closed submanifold $N$. Then there is a homomorphism $\varphi_N: \pi_1(M) \to \Bbb Z/2$ given by taking a loop and sending it to its mod-2 intersection number with $N$. That $N$ separates $M$ is equivalent to this homomorphism being zero.

For in one direction, if $N$ does not separate $M$, pick a point in $N$ and two points $x$ and $y$ in $M \setminus N$ that locally look to be on 'opposite sides' of $N$ (so that there is a path from one to the other that passes through $N$ exactly once). Then pick a path in the complement of $N$ from $x$ to $y$. Joining this with the path in the above parenethetical we get a loop that's tranvserse to $N$ and passes through it exactly once; so it has nonzero mod-2 intersection number with $N$. So $\varphi_N$ is nonzero.

Conversely suppose $\varphi_N$ is nonzero. Suppose $M$ was disconnected by $N$. Pick points $x, y$ in the two different components. Now pick an immersed loop with nonzero intersection number with $N$. Modify it so that it passes once each through $x$ and $y$, and so that it's immersed and, of course, transverse to $N$. Then as we follow the path from $x$ to $y$ the intersection number increases precisely when we pass between components. So going from $x$ to $y$ and then back to $x$ we must cross $N$ an even number of times! This is a contradiction to our choice of path. So $M \setminus N$ is connected.

So $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2) = 0$ (or equivalently by Poincare duality $H_{n-1}(M;\Bbb Z/2) = 0$) suffices to know that every closed connected submanifold disconnects $M$. I hope you agree that this is a very weak condition, much weaker than $\pi_1(M) = 0$. It's true, for instance, of every lens space $L(2p+1,q)$ (or as you say if $H_1(M;\Bbb Z) = 0$). But even if you don't have this, it still suffices to check whether or not $\varphi_N = 0$.

I suspect there is a manifold $M$ with $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2)$ nonzero but such that any closed connected submanifold still separates $M$. I don't have an example, though.

Edit: as pointed out by Daniel Valenzuela in the comments, if one has a nontrivial cohomology class $\xi \in H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2)$, consider it as a real line bundle over $M$, and take a generic section of $\xi$ (in the sense that it intersects the zero section transversely). Let $N$ be the zero set of this generic section, and $\iota$ its inclusion map; then one can check that the normal bundle of $N$ is $\iota^* \xi$. This immediately implies that the complement of $N$ is connected, and thus we have constructed a non-separating manifold. (Alternatively one can show that $\varphi_N$ is the same homomorphism as $\xi$; same trick.) Note that $N$ may not be connected, but just restrict to one of its connected components and one has a connected separating submanifold.

So $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2) = 0$ is equivalent to the separation theorem: that any closed submanifold of $M$ of codimension 1 separates $M$ into two components.

(As far as I can tell everything should be perfectly valid for $M$ noncompact and $N$ closed (in the point-set sense, not in the compact without boundary sense) submanifolds.)

amWhy
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  • Thanks very much for your answer! Could give me some reference? – 王文龙 Oct 18 '15 at 00:21
  • @王文龙 What do you want a reference for? –  Oct 18 '15 at 00:22
  • To chek and learn more. – 王文龙 Oct 18 '15 at 00:36
  • Could you give some stronger condition which implies $H^1(M; \mathbb{Z}/ 2)=0$ or some condition which implies $H^1(M; \mathbb{Z}/ 2)\neq 0$? Can $H_1(M, \mathbb{Z})=0$ implies $H^1(M; \mathbb{Z}/2)=0 $? – 王文龙 Oct 18 '15 at 00:36
  • $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2) = \text{Hom(\pi_1(M),\Bbb Z/2) = \text{Hom(H_1(M;\Bbb Z),\Bbb Z/2)$ and is also isomorphic to $H_1(M;\Bbb Z/2)$. So if any of $\pi_1(M), $H_1(M;\Bbb Z)$, or $H_1(M;\Bbb Z/2)$ vanish, so does $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2)$. –  Oct 18 '15 at 00:45
  • @王文龙 I meant what particular parts of this answer do you want a reference for? I don't know what references to give unless you're more specific. –  Oct 18 '15 at 00:48
  • @MikeMiller I think $H^1(M;Z/2)=0$ is equivalent to the property you stated, as every Poincare Dual homology class can be represented by a submanifold? Also it was asked not only to seperate, but also to seperate into exactly 2 components. This should be fine when requiring proper embeddings though. – Daniel Valenzuela Oct 18 '15 at 14:45
  • Nice answer though. – Daniel Valenzuela Oct 18 '15 at 15:03
  • @DanielValenzuela: I'm not sure how to prove that every element of $H_{n-1}(M;\Bbb Z/2)$ is represented by a submanifold - I could do it with $\Bbb Z$ coefficients by taking a generic fiber of a nontrivial map to the circle, but I don't know how to do it here. And I didn't mention the number of components because that's the easy part, like you say in your answer, by considering the normal bundle. –  Oct 18 '15 at 16:03
  • Yes, for $Z$ coefficients that is the way you get your submanifold. For the general case, I think you just can take the zero locus of a generic section of the unique line bundle via $\omega_1^{-1}:H^1(M;Z/2) \cong Vect_1X$. – Daniel Valenzuela Oct 18 '15 at 16:22
  • @DanielValenzuela: Oh, good point, that works. –  Oct 18 '15 at 17:04
  • beautiful observation – Anubhav Mukherjee Oct 19 '15 at 14:41
  • @MikeMiller I dont understnad the meaning of your last line, in the proof you've proved that it is an "iff" condition...then what is the meaning of your last line? I mean how could that be possible?? – Anubhav Mukherjee Oct 19 '15 at 15:27
  • @Anubhav.K: What I proved is that $N$ separates $M$ (into two components) iff $\varphi_N = 0$. But the worry is that if $H^1(M;\Bbb Z/2) \neq 0$, there doesn't have to be an $N$ with $\varphi_N$ realizing that nonzero cohomology class. Put another way, how do I go from cohomology classes to submanifolds? Daniel Valenzuela explained how to do so above: by taking the zero set of a generic section of the appropriate line bundle. I'll explain what, precisely, is going on in my answer later. –  Oct 19 '15 at 15:30
  • ohh, I see, my mistake, I misunderstood that line, thnx for the clarification – Anubhav Mukherjee Oct 19 '15 at 15:34
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A properly embedded connected compact submanifold $N \hookrightarrow M$ gives you a map $H_1(M;Z) \to Z/2$ by counting mod 2 intersections. By counting those you see (as explained by Mike) that we have equivalent conditions: $N$ seperates $M$ into exactly 2 components (as we have a trivial normal bundle) $\Leftrightarrow$ the induced homomorphism $H_1(M;Z) \to Z/2$ is trivial.

Now this characterizes those submanifolds pretty well. In particular we see that if $H_1(M;Z)=0$ every such homomorphism induced by any submanifold is necessarily trivial. Or if $H_1(N;Z) \to H_1(M;Z)$ is an isomorphism as we see that every homology class can be represented as a curve on $N$ which can be pushed off $N$, which makes the intersection trivial.

Daniel Valenzuela
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  • I guess everything here is orientable? Otherwise I have a counterexample to the claim in your last paragraph, $\Bbb{RP}^2 \hookrightarrow \Bbb{RP}^3$. –  Oct 18 '15 at 16:04
  • Yeah, for that last part we definitely need $N,M$ both orientable or both not orientable (trivial normal bundle, otherwise you can't push anything off). The rest is fine in general. – Daniel Valenzuela Oct 18 '15 at 16:08
  • OK, agreed.${}$ –  Oct 18 '15 at 16:09