I'm not quite sure that I really understand WHY I need to use implication for universal quantification, and conjunction for existential quantification.
Modifying your analysis a bit, let $A$ be the set of apples, and $D$ the set of delicious things.
$\forall x: [x\in A \implies x\in D]$ means all apples are delicious. Often written $\forall x\in A :x\in D$
$\forall x: [x\in A \land x\in D]$ means everything is a delicious apple.
$\exists x:[x\in A \land x\in D]$ means there exists at least one delicious apple. Often written $\exists x\in A:x\in D$, or equivalently $\exists x\in D: x\in A$
What does $\exists x:[x\in A \implies x\in D]$ mean? It is equivalent to $\exists x:[x\notin A \lor x\in D]$.
For a given $x$ then, either of the following possibilities that will satisfy this condition:
$x\in A \land x\in D$, i.e. there exists at least one delicious apple (as above)
$x\notin A\land x\in D$, i.e. there exists at least one non-apple that is delicious
$x\notin A\land x\notin D$, i.e. there exists at least one non-apple that is not delicious
So, the implication allows for more possibilities than the conjunction. In particular, the implication allows for the possibility that there are no apples. The conjunction does not.
Furthermore, $\exists x: [x\in A \implies x\in D]$ is a set theoretic variation of the so-called Drinker's Paradox. Here's where it gets crazy! For any set $A$ and any proposition $P$, we can prove using ordinary set theory that $$\exists x: [x\in A \implies P]$$
You could even prove, for example, that $$\exists x: [x\in A \implies x\notin A]$$
So, to avoid confusion, you would probably want to avoid such constructs in mathematics. For a formal development, see The Drinker's Paradox: A Tale of Three Paradoxes at my blog.
∀x in F, A(x) -> D(x)wouldn't then it be vacuously true for every fruit? So wouldn't I not be capturing the desired values for that one either? – Adam Thompson Oct 19 '15 at 19:12