We know that the matrices $A$ and $B$ don't commute even if $e^{A}$ and $e^{B}$ commute.
However, if the problem now is that $e^{xA}$ and $e^{yB}$ commute $\forall x,y\in \mathbb{R}$, then do A and B commute?
The following is my proof:
$\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\frac{\partial }{\partial x}(e^{xA}e^{yB})=(\frac{\mathrm{d} }{\mathrm{d} x}e^{xA})(\frac{\mathrm{d} }{\mathrm{d} y}e^{yB})=Ae^{xA}Be^{yB}$
$\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\frac{\partial }{\partial x}(e^{yB}e^{xA})=(\frac{\mathrm{d} }{\mathrm{d} y}e^{yB})(\frac{\mathrm{d} }{\mathrm{d} x}e^{xA})=Be^{yB}Ae^{xA}$
$\because0=\frac{\partial }{\partial y}\frac{\partial }{\partial x}[e^{xA},e^{yB}]=Ae^{xA}Be^{yB}-Be^{yB}Ae^{xA}$
Then set $x=y=0$, we have $[A,B]=0$.
Is my proof correct?