I have a homogeneous recurrence equation.
$x_i = (1-p)x_{i-1} + px_{i+1}, p \in (0,1)$
Using the classical methods (solving the characteristic polynomial) I can show that
if $p=1/2$, then the sequences described by $x_i = c_1+c_2i$ are solutions $\forall c_1,c_2 \in \mathbb R$.
if $p \ne 1/2$, then the sequences described by $x_i = c_1+c_2(\frac{1-p}{p})^i$ are solutions $\forall c_1,c_2 \in \mathbb R$
According to a theorem here (point 2) there is no other solutions.
I am now asked to explain why there are no other solutions. Is the only explanation a reference to the theorem/ its proof or there is a straightforward argument why in my case there could be no other solutions?