I have written in a textbook that $$\cfrac{n(n-1)(n-2)\times\cdots\times(n-r+1)}{r!}\tag{1}$$ $$=\cfrac{n(n-1)(n-2)\times\cdots \times 2 \times 1}{r!(n-r)(n-r-1)\cdots \times 2 \times 1}\tag{2}$$ $$=\cfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}\tag{3}$$
I understand completely how $(3)$ follows from $(1)$.
But I don't understand how $(2)$ follows from $(1)$. I tried multiplying top and bottom of $(1)$ by $(n-r)(n-r-1)$ which gives $$\cfrac{n(n-1)(n-2)\times\cdots\times(n-r+1)(n-r)(n-r-1)}{r!(n-r)(n-r-1)}$$ but this gets me nowhere.
Since it was written in textbook all in one step as shown above; my guess is that it must be something simple I am missing.
Any help will be greatly appreciated.