@barakmanos It's just Pythagoras ($\sin^2 x + \cos^2 x = 1$ is just stating Pythagoras as well). And why does the deduction follow? It's a non-sequitur in my opinion.
– Henno BrandsmaNov 08 '15 at 08:28
@HennoBrandsma: By "stating Pythagoras", I meant stating the well-known fact that $3^2+4^2=5^2$ (which is what I had in mind when I noted "Pythagoras" in a comment to the question). So I do not agree that stating $\sin^2x+\cos^2x=1$ is an equivalent. I do agree, however, that the OP is probably missing a "$\implies$" here or something to make the deduction clearer.
– barak manosNov 08 '15 at 08:35