For arbitrary $n \geq 2$ and $m \geq 2$, is $$\sum_{k=1}^{n} k^{\frac{1}{m}}$$ an irrational number?
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1Please show your progress on the problem. – Jack Frost Nov 08 '15 at 14:47
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1Any reason to believe we'd know? I mean there's that whole "$\pi+e$" lack of elementary knowledge thing going on with these problems... – Zach466920 Nov 08 '15 at 14:58