I would like to know if there is any proof without using the fact that:
$$\lambda_1\cdot\lambda_2\cdot\ldots\cdot\lambda_{n-1}\cdot\lambda_n = det(A)$$
I managed to prove that if $\lambda = 0$ then, A is singular, by:
$$ det(A-\lambda\cdot I)=0 \Rightarrow det(A-0\cdot I)=0 \Leftrightarrow det(A)=0 $$
However I can't prove that if A is singular then, $\lambda = 0 $.
I talked to my teacher and he told me that maybe I could prove by induction that:
$$ p(\lambda)=a_n\lambda^n+\ldots+a_1\lambda+a_0 $$
where,
$$a_0=det(A)$$
Then:
$$ p(\lambda)=a_n\lambda^n+\ldots+a_1\lambda\Rightarrow p(\lambda)=\lambda(a_n\lambda^{n-1}+\ldots+a_1) $$
which guarantees that $\lambda=0$ is an eigenvalue.
If anyone could help, I would greatly appreciate it.