Can $a(2as-4a-s-4)$ be a prime, except when $a=1$. And both $a$ and $s$ are positive integers
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No, since it's divisible by $a$. – AnotherTest Nov 19 '15 at 18:27
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1no because you multiply by $a$ – Zelos Malum Nov 19 '15 at 18:27
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No because $$2as-4a-s-4=1\iff (2a-1)(s-2)=7$$ $$\iff (a,s)=(1,9),(4,3)$$
mathlove
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This answer assumes that in order for a number to be prime, it must be positive (which, depending on your conventions, may or may not be the case). On the other hand, if primes are allowed to be negative, then $(a,s) = (3,3)$ gives the answer $-3$, which is prime. (And using mathlove's same steps one can show that it is the only answer). – Jason DeVito - on hiatus Nov 19 '15 at 18:42