I realize this question will not have an "answer," but I would really like to hear what anyone might know about this topic.
In class today my professor stated that if there are $m$ pigeons and $n$ holes, then there are at least $\left \lfloor{\frac{m-1}{n}}\right \rfloor+1$ pigeons in at least one hole. I understood the proof completely but asked why we do not use the formula $\left \lceil{\frac{m}{n}}\right \rceil$ instead. He (and my classmates) tried to find a counterexample and failed. Every time he would set up and use the formula with floor I became frustrated because the formula with ceiling gets the answer so much faster! Upon a Google search, I find both statements individually but no one ever has a discussion about their equivalence.
Does anyone know why one would be preferred over the other?
Thanks!