This is a late answer, but I feel the current answers are unsatisfying and I had the same question for a bit when I first encountered this myself so it seems worth explaining with a bit more care.
Recall the definition of an open set as set where every point is an interior point. Denote the set of invertible linear operators by $\Omega$. So, what we wish to show is that if $T \in \Omega$, then there exists a ball $B_\delta(T)$ such that $B_\delta(T) \subset \Omega$. That is, there exists $\delta > 0$ such that $\Vert S- T \Vert < \delta$ implies $S \in \Omega$.
The claim in Folland's book asserts that for any $S \in L(X,X)$ which satisfies $\Vert S-T \Vert \leq \Vert T^{-1}\Vert^{-1}$, we have that $S \in \Omega$. So, taking $\delta < \Vert T^{-1} \Vert^{-1}$ gives us exactly the condition that $B_\delta(T) \subset \Omega$.
It turns out that this is extremely easy to prove straight from the definitions, just it can be a bit hard to see how to unpack them when dealing with unfamiliar objects (such as linear operators in a Banach space instead of points in $\mathbb{R}^n$). The real lesson here is just the trivial statement that definitions apply everywhere they apply, not just the intuitive/familiar cases.