If $u(x,y)$ is a solution of the Partial differential equation $xp-yq=u$ with $u(x,0)=sin(πx/4)$ then $u(1/√2 ,1/√2)$ is
- $(1/√2)e^{π/4}$
- $(1/√2)e^{1/√2}$
- $(π/4)e^{π/√2}$
- $(π/4)e^{π/4}$. I tried to solve it using Lagrange's method and got $u(x,y)=f(x^2+y^2)e^{tan^{-1}y/x}$ as the solution but I do not know how can I fit this condition $u(x,0)=sin(πx/4)$ into my solution. Kindly help me out to solve it correctly or is there another method to hit such type of problem more efficiently. Thanks.