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For example, does the following summation "converge" to $\infty$?

$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac 1 n$$

If so, give me some other examples and explain what it means to converge to infinity.

Also, is there anything special about a series converging to infinity?

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    We say it "diverges" to infinity. – Zhanxiong Nov 30 '15 at 23:29
  • If the series diverges to infinity, it means that as we keep adding more and more terms (we are adding infinitely many terms), the sum just keeps growing and growing without getting closer to any real number. It just gets bigger, eventually bigger than every real number. – layman Nov 30 '15 at 23:31
  • Here's another example: $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}1$. – Gregory Grant Nov 30 '15 at 23:32
  • @user46944 What you describe is a bit less general than the general situation. A series need not diverge monotonically to infinity. Also, it's not enough to get bigger than every real number, it has to get bigger and stay bigger. For example $(-1)^nn$ gets bigger than every real number but it does not diverge to infinity. Sorry to nitpick. – Gregory Grant Nov 30 '15 at 23:34
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    From what I think, diverging means the amount we add each time increases. The picture in my head says it has to bend away from real numbers more and more to reach infinity, but I'm not sure if this is right. Looking at the graph of $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac 1 n$$my conclusion was that it was bending towards some finite number but kept on going to infinity anyways. Also, isn't infinity a real number? I guess it depends how you look at it. And when we say it tends towards infinity, don't we mean it gets arbitrarily large without limit? – Simply Beautiful Art Nov 30 '15 at 23:35
  • @Masacroso That doesn't help me much. I've already read most of it. – Simply Beautiful Art Nov 30 '15 at 23:53
  • On the wiki page, I noted that "A sequence is convergent if and only if it is Cauchy." o.O

    To be a Cauchy sequence, $|x_m-x_n|$ must be infinitesimal when m and n are infinite. This happens to be the case for $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac 1 n$. So does it converge?

    – Simply Beautiful Art Nov 30 '15 at 23:56
  • Oh, never mind. I've found my answer. The above statement does not mean that the series is convergent, rather it is a property of a convergent series. Thank you everyone for your input. – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 01 '15 at 00:15
  • @SimpleArt, in response to your comment above, note that for the series you mentioned (the harmonic series) it does not happen to be the case that $x_n-x_m|$ is infinitesimal when $n$ and $m$ are infinite. In fact, the difference can be anything: infinitesimal, appreciable, or infinite. That's the reason the harmonic series diverges. – Mikhail Katz Jan 01 '16 at 09:25
  • @user72694 How is that? – Simply Beautiful Art Jan 01 '16 at 15:19
  • The harmonic series gets larger and larger as $n$ tends to infinity, even though the growth gets slower and slower. This is discussed in Keisler's book Elementary calculus on page 505. – Mikhail Katz Jan 02 '16 at 19:34

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One says that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac 1 {2^n}$ "converges to $2$", NOT that it "converges on $2$".

One says that $\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n$ "diverges", but that does not mean it "diverges to" anything.

But with $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1 n$, one could say that it "converges to $\infty$" for the same reason one says the first sum above "converges to $2$"; however, it is conventional to say that it "diverges to $\infty$".

I suspect that ultimately the justification of saying "diverges to $\infty$" rather than "converges to $\infty$" is that $\infty$ is an absorbent element for addition and multiplication: If you add any finite number to $\infty$ or multiply any finite number by $\infty$, you get $\infty$, and this matters if you consider things like $\displaystyle\sum_n \left( \frac 1 n + \frac 1 {2^n} \right)$, etc. That would explain why infinite products $\displaystyle\prod_{n=1}^\infty a_n$ of positive numbers $a_n$ are in some cases said to "diverge to $0$" rather than to "converge to $0$". They many "converge to" any positive real number, but if the limit is $0$ or $\infty$ they are said to "diverge", just as if you had something oscillating like $\displaystyle N\mapsto\sum_{n=1}^N (-1)^n$.

  • I want to say you answer my question, but your answer didn't feel satisfying or reassuring. Could you add some references to your post? Or else I shall have to believe this to be personal opinion. – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 01 '15 at 00:01
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This is one case where the more general definition of a limit is handy:

A sequence $s_n$ converges to $L$ if, for any neighborhood of $L$, there is some $N$ such that all the $s_m$ with $m>N$ are within this neighborhood.

Where the word "neighborhood" refers to some open set containing $L$. In particular, if you take $(L-\varepsilon,L+\varepsilon)$ to be a neighborhood you recover the $\varepsilon-\delta$ definition of a limit.

Following this, one can see that the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}n$ diverges in $\mathbb R$ because there is no such $L$. The easiest way to prove that is to see that it exhibits unbounded growth. However, one can also work in the extended real line where we add $\infty$ and $-\infty$ to our set and say that a neighborhood of $\infty$ looks like a set $(c,\infty]$ - meaning to converge to $\infty$ the sequence must grow beyond any finite bound. In this sense, you can find that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}n$ does indeed converge to $\infty$.

So, whether a series converges or diverges is somewhat dependent on the space in which it exists - "converges to $\infty$" basically means "grows without bound" and is a natural notion when we include $\infty$ in our set.

Milo Brandt
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Divergence is based on the end of the series

  • do the terms settle on a number (Converges)

  • do they go to ±∞ (Diverges)

  • do they bounce between different numbers without settling on one specifically (Diverges)

not on how you get there

  • does the distance between specific terms get larger or smaller
  • Man, I really don't like accepting that it simply "DIVERGES" if it goes to $\pm\infty$. – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 01 '15 at 00:17
  • Yeah, I know. In my mind, if it concaves/convexes away from the x-axis (or anything finite), I think it diverges. If it bends towards X, then it is converging to X. But in my example, it happens to seem to bend towards the x-axis while still leaving it in the long run. Also, use "$" around your equations to make them work correctly. – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 01 '15 at 00:23
  • Maybe think of it in terms of first derivatives (does the function keep going up/down) rather than of second derivatives? EDIT: it appears that I should also have not deleted my first comment. My bad – Simpson17866 Dec 01 '15 at 00:24
  • Lol. Also, a function can keep going up/down and still converge. It can even oscilate, but as long as it comes closer and closer to X, it will converge. For example, $$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac 1{(-2)^n}=\frac 3 2$$ – Simply Beautiful Art Dec 01 '15 at 00:30
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The reason we don't say that a series converges to infinity but rather *diverges" to infinity is so as to respect the equivalence between "convergent" and "Cauchy". It is true that in some ways for a series diverging to infinity, intuitively looks like the series of partial sums is converging, but at any rate it is not a Cauchy sequence.

In more detail, a sequence $(u_n)$ is Cauchy if, as Cauchy defined it, the difference $u_n-u_m$ is infinitesimal for all infinite indices $n$ and $n$. Meanwhile, a sequence $(u_n)$ that tends to infinity will not have this property. For example for the sequence with $n$-th term $u_n=\sqrt{n}$, the consecutive terms $u_n$ and $u_{n+1}$ are getting closer and closer, but for example $u_n$ and $u_{2n}$ are not getting closer when $n$ tends to infinity.

Mikhail Katz
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