This is one case where the more general definition of a limit is handy:
A sequence $s_n$ converges to $L$ if, for any neighborhood of $L$, there is some $N$ such that all the $s_m$ with $m>N$ are within this neighborhood.
Where the word "neighborhood" refers to some open set containing $L$. In particular, if you take $(L-\varepsilon,L+\varepsilon)$ to be a neighborhood you recover the $\varepsilon-\delta$ definition of a limit.
Following this, one can see that the series $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}n$ diverges in $\mathbb R$ because there is no such $L$. The easiest way to prove that is to see that it exhibits unbounded growth. However, one can also work in the extended real line where we add $\infty$ and $-\infty$ to our set and say that a neighborhood of $\infty$ looks like a set $(c,\infty]$ - meaning to converge to $\infty$ the sequence must grow beyond any finite bound. In this sense, you can find that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}n$ does indeed converge to $\infty$.
So, whether a series converges or diverges is somewhat dependent on the space in which it exists - "converges to $\infty$" basically means "grows without bound" and is a natural notion when we include $\infty$ in our set.
To be a Cauchy sequence, $|x_m-x_n|$ must be infinitesimal when m and n are infinite. This happens to be the case for $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac 1 n$. So does it converge?
– Simply Beautiful Art Nov 30 '15 at 23:56