If we take the definition of a real projective space $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^n$ as the space $S^n$ modulo the antipodal map ($x\sim -x$), it is possible to see that $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^1$ is topologically equivalent to the circle. It is equivalent to the upper half of the circle where the two end points are glued together - i.e. another circle.
Is there an intuitive or visual way of understanding the real projective plane, $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2$? By the same intuitive reasoning, it seems that $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2$ should be topologically equivalent to the upper half of $S^2$ with the antipodal equivalence on the rim. This is the definition of $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^1$, where the antipodal map doesn't change the topology, so it seems that $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2$ should simply be the upper half of $S^2$ as well.
This is clearly wrong, however, since $\mathbb{R}\mathrm{P}^2$ cannot be imbedded in $\mathbb{R}^3$. What is the fault in this reasoning, and is there an intuitive or visual way to imagine the real projective plane?




