This is a follow up question to something I asked earlier: What does it mean for a sequence of sheaves to be exact
Let $F, G, H$ be sheaves on a topological space $X$, and let $$F \xrightarrow{\alpha} G \xrightarrow{\beta} H$$ be morphisms of sheaves. Let $\mathcal O = \textrm{Im}^{\textrm{pre}}(\alpha)$ be the presheaf $U \mapsto \textrm{Im }( \alpha(U))$, and let $\textrm{Im } \alpha$ be a sheafification of this presheaf. There is a canonical choice of $\textrm{Im } \alpha$ which is actually a subsheaf of $G$, which is directly obtained by using the universal property on any sheafification of $\mathcal O$, and does not depend on the specific choice of sheafification. Assuming $(\textrm{Im } \alpha, \theta)$ (where $\theta: \mathcal O \rightarrow \textrm{Im } \alpha$ is the universal map) is this canonical sheafification, we say that the sequence is exact if $\textrm{Im } \alpha$ is equal to the sheaf $\textrm{Ker } \beta$.
I'm having trouble understanding the proof of the result that the sequence is exact if and only if the corresponding sequence on the stalks $F_x \xrightarrow{\alpha_x} G_x \xrightarrow{\beta_x} H_x$ is exact for all $x \in X$.
For example, let me suppose that $\textrm{Im } \alpha = \textrm{Ker } \beta$. Let $i, i^+$ be the respective inclusion morphisms of $\mathcal O, \textrm{Im } \alpha$ into $G$. Since $i^+ \circ \theta = i$, and $i^+$ maps $\textrm{Im } \alpha$ onto the kernel of $\beta$, we have that also $i$ maps $\mathcal O$ into $\textrm{Ker } \beta$, i.e. $\textrm{Im } (\alpha(U)) \subseteq \textrm{Ker } \beta(U)$ for all $U$. Thus $\beta \circ \alpha$ is the zero morphism, which implies $\beta_x \circ \alpha_x = 0$ for all $x$. Now I'm having trouble seeing that the kernel of $\beta_x$ is contained in the image of $\alpha_x$.