My original problem is the following: given the ring $$ R:=\left\{\begin{bmatrix}q & 0\\ r & s\end{bmatrix}\;:\;q\in\Bbb Q,\;r,s,\in\Bbb R\right\} =:\begin{bmatrix}\Bbb Q & \Bbb 0\\ \Bbb R & \Bbb R\end{bmatrix} $$ I have to show that it is a left artinian ring, i.e. seen as a left module on itself, $_RR$, is artinian, i.e. the lattice of its submodules $\mathcal{L}(_RR)$, partially ordered by inclusion $\subseteq$ is an artinian poset.
So I tried to figure out how the submodules of $_RR$ are, and after some elementary computation I deduced that $$ \mathcal{L}(_RR)=\left\{\begin{bmatrix}A & 0\\ B & C\end{bmatrix}\;:\;A\;\mbox{is a $_{\Bbb Q}\Bbb Q$-submodule},A\subseteq B,\\ \;B,C\;\mbox{are $_{\Bbb R}\Bbb R$-submodules}\right\} $$ thus a descending chain of submodules of $_RR$ is of the type $$ \begin{bmatrix}A_0 & 0\\ B_0 & C_0\end{bmatrix}\ \supseteq \begin{bmatrix}A_1 & 0\\ B_1 & C_1\end{bmatrix}\ \supseteq\cdots\;\;\;\;\;\;\;\;\;(*) $$ where $\{A_i\}_{i\ge0}$ is a descending chain of $_{\Bbb Q}\Bbb Q$-submodules and $\{B_i\}_{i\ge0},\;\{C_i\}_{i\ge0}$ are descending chains of $_{\Bbb R}\Bbb R$-submodules. Thus if $_{\Bbb Q}\Bbb Q$ and $_{\Bbb R}\Bbb R$ were artinian, then $(*)$ would be stationary, thus my ring $R$ would be left artinian. Is my argument correct? How can I prove that $_{\Bbb Q}\Bbb Q$ and $_{\Bbb R}\Bbb R$ are artinian modules?