I was recently reminded of this proof technique in Wikipedia using the Riemann hypothesis along with the law of excluded middle, whether or not this hypothesis is true or not and may even be independent.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riemann_hypothesis#Excluded_middle
Is this a logically sound step in proving things? Does the independence of a certain claim of any relevance for the application of the law of excluded middle along with it? It feels kinda fishy. On the other hand, I used it so many times along with claims that may or may not be independent, that maybe it's not so different after all.