Prove by mathematical inductin that: $$\sum_{k=n+1}^{2n} \frac{1}{k} = \sum_{m=1}^{2n} \frac{(-1)^{m+1}}{m}, \qquad \forall n \in N$$ is true.
For $n=1$, ($\frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2})$ it holds. But what to do more? Can you give me a hint? I tried from hypothesis (when $n=j$) getting to verify that it holds for $n = j+1$, but with no result.
Thanks.