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How to prove that this statement is tautology using logic laws

(q ˄ (p ↔ ¬ q) ) → q

Edit:

I got stuck here after trying to apply De Morgan's law:

(q ˄ (p ↔ ¬ q)) → q
¬ [q ˄ (p ↔ ¬ q)] ˅ q
¬ q ˅ ¬ (p ↔ ¬ q) ˅ q
¬ q ˅ (¬ p ↔ q) ˅ q
¬ q ˅ [(¬ p → q) ˄ (q → ¬ p)] ˄ q

3 Answers3

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Hint: The desired tautology has the form $(q\wedge r)\rightarrow q$

paw88789
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Long comment

You have to use the equivalence between $a \to b$ and $\lnot a \lor b$.

It must be :

$(q \land (p \leftrightarrow ¬ q) ) \to q$

is equivalent to :

$\lnot [q \land (p \leftrightarrow ¬ q) ] \lor q$.

Then, apply De Morgan's laws to get :

$\lnot q \lor \lnot (p \leftrightarrow ¬ q) \lor q$.

Now it is quite easy ... (see Table of Logical Equivalences)

  • I have edited my post. can you check what's wrong ? and if it's right how can i continue/simplify the last statement? – J.doe123 Dec 15 '15 at 16:41
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It very much depends on which logic laws you're allowed to do.

If you have the axiom schema $\phi\land\psi\rightarrow\phi$ it follows by substituting $q$ for $\phi$ and $(p \leftrightarrow \neg q)$ for $\psi$.

If on the other hand you're allowed to use truth tables, then it's just a matter of making a truth table and see it to be a tautology.

skyking
  • 16,654