This answer pertains to part (b).
If it were true that $\arcsin(\sin\theta)=\theta$ for all $\theta$, then the fact that $\cos x=\sin(x+\pi/2)$ would imply $\arcsin(\cos x)=\arcsin(\sin(x+\pi/2))=x+\pi/2$, as the OP observed. But $\arcsin(\sin\theta)$ does not equal $\theta$ for all $\theta$. Instead we have
$$\arcsin(\sin\theta)=\theta\quad\text{if and only if }-\pi/2\le\theta\le\pi/2$$
What's actually going on here is that identity (b) has been stated incompletely. It should say
$$\arcsin(\cos x)=\pi/2-x\quad\text{for }0\le x\le\pi$$
Note that if we let $\theta=\pi/2-x$, then
$$0\le x\le\pi\implies\pi/2\le\theta\le\pi/2$$ and
$$\sin\theta=\sin(\pi/2-x)=\cos x$$
Putting these together, we have
$$\arcsin(\cos x)=\arcsin(\sin\theta)=\theta=\pi/2-x$$
but only for $0\le x\le\pi$.