I've been reading a little about the Fisher-Neyman factorization theorem on my own, and I think I understand intuitively what a sufficient statistic is, but I am wondering what the convention is for formally defining it.
Is it true that, for a given collection of iid samples ($\vec{x}$) from a distribution $X$, the maximum likelihood estimate of the parameter $\theta \in \mathbb{R}^t$ depends exclusively on $T(\vec{x})$ and not on other factors such as the number of elements in the sample?
If that is the case, does it make sense to take the following as a definition of sufficiency. (Maximum likelihood estimates given $\vec{x}$ and $\vec{y}$ are equal iff $T(\vec{x}) = T(\vec{y})$).
$$ \forall { \vec{x}, \vec{y} \in \text{Seq}[\mathbb{R}]: } \left( \max_{\theta_x \in \mathbb{R}^t} \prod_{x \in \vec{x}} p(x;\theta_x) \right) = \left( \max_{\theta_y \in \mathbb{R}^t} \prod_{y \in \vec{y}} p(y;\theta_y) \right) \Longleftrightarrow T(\vec{x}) = T(\vec{y}) $$
So this definition, while closer to right, is also wrong.
Based on the comments below, the above definition inappropriately rejects all sufficient statistics except for the maximum likelihood estimate itself. For instance, the sum is a sufficient statistic for the mean in a normal distribution with standard deviation 1: $\mathcal{N}(\mu, 1)$. Amending the formula above gives us: $$ \forall { \vec{x}, \vec{y} \in \mathbb{R}^n: } \left( \max_{\theta_x \in \mathbb{R}^t} \prod_{x \in \vec{x}} p(x;\theta_x) \right) = \left( \max_{\theta_y \in \mathbb{R}^t} \prod_{y \in \vec{y}} p(y;\theta_y) \right) \Longleftrightarrow T(\vec{x}) = T(\vec{y}) $$
with $n$ being the length of the sample.