Hurwitz's Theorem in Number Theory states that for every irrational number $\xi$, the equation $$\left|\xi-\frac{p}{q}\right|<\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}q^2}$$ has infinitely many solutions $(p,q)$ such that $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime, and that this is not true of $$\left|\xi-\frac{p}{q}\right|<\frac{1}{(\sqrt{5}+\varepsilon)q^2}$$ has finitely many relative prime solutions for any $\varepsilon>0$.
There is a meaningful sense in which this is a statement about $\phi=\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2}$, because the proof of the second part is a property of the number $\phi$, and if $\phi$ (plus a specific set of numbers that are equivalent to $\phi$ in a certain sense), then the bound changes to $2\sqrt{2}$. We might only care about some other irrational number, and so we might form the following problem:
Let $\mu(\xi)$ be the unique number (should it exist) that has the property that $$\left|\xi-\frac{p}{q}\right|<\frac{1}{\mu(\xi)q^2}$$ has infinitely many solutions $(p,q)$ such that $p$ and $q$ are relatively prime, and that $$\left|\xi-\frac{p}{q}\right|<\frac{1}{(\mu(\xi)+\varepsilon)q^2}$$ has finitely many relative prime solutions for any $\varepsilon>0$.
I am interested in when $\mu(\xi)$ exists (I conjecture that this is equivalent to asking when does $\xi$ have bounded coefficients in its continued fraction expansion), and when it does exist, how to calculate it (presumably via solving a recurrence). Proofs, references, and commentary on the current state of the problem (if it is unsolved) are all welcome.
For certain instances of the problem, I have found the value of $\mu(\xi)$ via recurrences. For example, I have proven that $\mu(\sqrt{d})=2\sqrt{d}$ for square-free $d$. I know that this is related to Markov Numbers and the Markov Spectrum, however neither of those answer my question.
This is the same problem as here but I'm looking for the general case.
Is this post a conjecture as to the answer of my problem? Or something else?
– Stella Biderman Dec 25 '15 at 00:42