I have a bits-and-pieces understanding on how to solve this problem and just a very rough intuition of the path to solve the problem but very much struggling to get to show $dL=L$.
This is part of a question if Do Carmo's book that reads as follows:
Prove that if $L:R^3\to R^3$ is a linear map and $S\subset R^3$ is a regular surface invariant under $L$, i.e., $L(S)\subset S$, then the restriction $L|S$ is a differentiable map and
$$dL_p(w)=L(w), \text{ }p\in S, w\in T_p(S).$$
I could show that the restriction $L|S$ is a differentiable map but I am struggling to show that $dL_p(w)=L(w)$.
So let's try this:
Let $p$ be a point on the surface $S$, $x:U\subset \mathbb R^2\rightarrow S$ be a parametrization s.t. $x(0)=p$ and $y:V\subset \mathbb R^2\rightarrow S$ be another parametrization s.t. $L(p)=y(0)$.
Let $f(u,v)=y^{-1}\circ L \circ x(u,v)$. By using chain rule, we get $df_0=d(y^{-1})_{L(p)}\circ dL \circ dx_0$.
My question is:
1. What the map does is $\mathbb R^2 \underset{dx}{\longrightarrow} T_pS \underset{dL}{\longrightarrow} T_{L(p)}S\underset{dy^{-1}}{\longrightarrow} \mathbb R^2$. From here, how can we conclude that $dL=L$?
I have seen some similar problems from some other sources, but I am still very much struggling to connect all the dots, everything for me is still bits and pieces.
Helps are greatly appreciated! Hopefully after making those points clear I can finish the problem by myself. Thanks.