Using the criterion of Weierstrass define convergence of series:
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}n!}{n^{2n} }\cos2nx$$
$x\in R$
- 95
-
The terms approach $0$ very rapidly, so there is no convergence issue. – André Nicolas Dec 29 '15 at 19:03
1 Answers
Find sequence $A_{n}$ which satisfy the inequality:
$\vert f_{n}\vert \le A_{n}$
$$\left|\frac {(-1)^{n+1}n!}{n^{2n} }\ \cos(2nx) \right|\le \frac{n!}{n^{2n}}$$
Now define the convergence of series: $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n!}{n^{2n}}$
Use D'Alambert's criterion:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{A_{n+1}}{A_{n}} = \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{(n+1)n!}{(n+1)^{2(n+1)}}\frac{n^{2n}}{n!} = \lim_{n \to \infty}\left(\frac{n}{n+1}\right)^{2n}\frac{1}{n+1}=0<1$$
$$ \left\{ \lim_{n \to \infty}(\frac{n}{n+1})^{2n} =\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(\frac{n+1-1}{n+1}\right)^{2n} = e^{-2} \right\} $$
Under D’Alambert criterion we find that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n!}{n^{2n}}$ is convergent.
so
Under the criterion of Weierstrass we find that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n+1}n!}{n^{2n} }\ \cos (2nx)$ is uniformly convergent for $x\in R$.