I've been working on answering this question on and off for a while (months). I can't seem to solve it, and I've presented it to a few people who also cannot solve it. I will present a special case of the problem here, as I intuitively suspect that if a counterexample can be found, it will be found in $ \mathbb{R}$.
$S \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ is said to have "Property 1" if and only if:
$\forall m \in \mathbb{R}$, $\exists$ $k \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $m+k \in S$ and $m-k \in S$.
Prove or disprove the following:
If $S$ has "Property 1", then $\exists$ $S' \subseteq S$ such that $S'$ has "Property 1" and $\forall$ $C \subseteq S'$, $C \neq \emptyset$, $S'-C$ does not have "Property 1."
I attempted a proof using Zorn's Lemma and quickly discovered that in order to even satisfy the hypothesis of said lemma, I would pretty much have to assume what we're trying to prove here (unless there's some clever way around this I'm not seeing). I didn't want to post this anywhere, I really wanted to prove it myself, but I'm having quite a bit of trouble. Any insight would be appreciated.