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Let $n>0$ and $f: S^n \to S^n$ a continous map. Let $f_* : H_n(S^n, \mathbb {Z}) \to H_n(S^n, \mathbb {Z})$ the induced homomorfism. Show that if $f_* \not = 0$ then $f$ is onto.

What I have done: Of course $H_n(S^n, \mathbb {Z}) \simeq \mathbb {Z}$. $1$ must be send to some $m$ by $f_*$, which covers $S^n$ exactely $m$ times, thus $f$ must be onto. I don't know how to say this properly.

Maffred
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1 Answers1

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Suppose that $f$ is not onto.

Then I claim that actually $f$ is nullhomotopic: the reason is that the sphere without a point is contractible (as it is homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$).

But the induced map on homology is a homotopy invariant.

Elle Najt
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  • Thank you, i got it! I posted another similar question a couple minutes ago, could you take a look at it if you please? :) – Maffred Jan 03 '16 at 04:35