In this exercise, we have to prove that there is an isomorphism $$\text{Hom}(\text{Tot}^{\oplus}(P\otimes Q),I)\cong \text{Hom}(P,\text{Tot}^{\prod}(\text{Hom}(Q,I))$$ of double complexes.
But if I choose $I$ to be the cochain complex with only $I_0$ (all the other abelian groups of other degree equals to zero) I get $$\text{Hom}(\text{Tot}^{\oplus}(P\otimes Q),I)_{p,q}=\prod_n\text{Hom}(P_{p-n},\text{Hom}(Q_n,I_q))$$ which is $0$ if $q\neq 0$ and $$\text{Hom}(P,\text{Tot}^{\prod}(\text{Hom}(Q,I))_{p,q}=\text{Hom}(P_p,\text{Hom}(Q_{q},I_0))=\text{Hom}(P_p\otimes Q_q,I_0)$$ and they clearly differs.
Where am I wrong ?