If i have the following arguments :
\begin{align} & a \to (b \lor c)\\ & \lnot b \lor \lnot c \\ & c \lor a \\ & --- \\ & b \end{align}
How do i prove that its valid. My thought was that if the conclusion is false, that is to say b = F, and we also assume that all the premises are True,
then $\lnot b$ is T. This leads us to say that ($\lnot b \lor \lnot c$) makes $\lnot c$ to be T and hence c = F
But to make $c \lor a$ True so must a = T. But this says otherwise in $a \to (b \lor c)$. That led me to think the argument is invalid. But my co-partner says its valid. Am a little confused here what is the meaning of being or not being valid.