Let $K: X \to Y$ be a bounded linear operator, where $X$ and $Y$ are two Banach spaces. Further assume that the image $imK$ is a $\infty$-dim closed subspace of Y.
In my script they claim that in such a setting $K$ can never be compact because by the closed image theorem we have that $K(B)$ ($B$ closed unit ball in $X$) contains an open ball and hence has no compact closure because the dimension is $\infty$.
My questions:
I understand that the dimension of the closed unit ball $B$ characterizes the dimension of the underlying Banach space but I don't understand how this argument is used here. Also I don't quite get the thing with the open ball due to the closed image theorem and the thing that follows with the compact closure. How does one mash these things together the right way?
EDIT:
Ok I might have found another way to proof the above:
Define $K_1: X \to im(K)$ by $x \mapsto K(x)$. Then $K_1$ is surjective, hence $K_1(B_{open})$ ($B_{open}$ denotes the open unit ball in x) contains a small $\delta$-ball $B_{\delta}$ centered at the origin of $Y$ by the open mapping theorem. If we assume $cl(K_1(B_{open}))$ to be compact in $im(K)$ we get that $cl(B_{\delta})=\{y \in Y | \Vert y \Vert_Y \leq \delta\} \subset cl(K_1(B_{open}))$ and since Y is Banach it's also Hausdorff therefore it follows that $cl(B_{\delta})$ is compact and hence by scaling the unit ball in $Y$ is also compact which contradicts the $\infty$-dimensional property of $im(K)$.
Is this right?