The open interval $(-\dfrac{\pi}{2}, \dfrac{\pi}{2})$ is well known to be homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}$ through the homemorphism $f(x) = \tan(x)$
Is the closed interval also homeomorphic to the real line?
It seems to be the case until you hits the end points, which is undefined by $f(x) = \tan(x)$ so that seems to ruin everything.
Also, is the closed interval homeomorphic to open interval given any intervals?