The question is physics related, but my issue stems from the math so I figured this was an appropriate place. I'm looking at the (electric) susceptibility $\chi$, in both the time $t$ and frequency $\omega$ domains. From physical reasoning (causality) one knows that in the time domain $\chi(t) = 0$ for all times $t < 0$, and also that it is a real function, $\chi(t) = \chi(t)^*$.
Okay, so lets go into the frequency domain! We define $\chi(\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\chi(t)e^{-i\omega t}dt}$
Now, my textbook says that because we have that because the time domain susceptiblity is zero valued for all $t<0$, we must have a complex valued $\chi(\omega)$. I feel like this should be a trivial consequence of the above definitions (and the fourier transform), but I just don't see it. Can someone help me on the way?