About your last question: "it means that it cannot be integrated for numbers witch give me 0 in the denominator in original function?", the answer is: Depends. The reason because this particular function is not integrable in [1,3] is because it's not bounded,which you can see with Wolfram if you wish, but there's another way of knowing it: Since the denominator is a polynomial, it is continuous. Besides, it becomes $0$ when $x=2$. This means $\lim_{ x \rightarrow 2} x^2-6x+8=0$. So the denominator approaches zero as much as you wish by making x near 2, and so $r(x)=\dfrac{1}{x^2-6x+8}$ goes to infinity, meaning r(x) is not bounded near 2. However if we consider the function: $f:[1,3]\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$, $f(x)=\dfrac{1}{1+x^2}$ if $x\not =2$ and $f(2)=0$, then it is true that the denominator gives $0$ in $x=2$, but it's clearly integrable on $[1,3]$.
$$x_{1; 2} = \frac{6\pm \sqrt{36 - 32}}{2} = \frac{6\pm 2}{2}$$
So $x_1 = 4$ and $x_2 = 2$
the second value, $x=2$ belongs to the extrema of integration, so there is a pole along the integration path, which makes the integral to diverge.
– Enrico M. Jan 20 '16 at 21:05