Assume that $f : X \rightarrow Y $ is surjective. Show that $f(A^c) = (f(A))^c \ \forall A\subset X$ iff $f$ is also injective.
So I tried starting with the right implication $\Rightarrow$
Since $f$ is surjective we know that every $ y\in Y$ corresponds to some $x\in X$. Then we want to prove that this $x \in X $ is at most one.
I came to the conclusion that since $f(A^c) = (f(A))^c \ \Leftrightarrow f(A) \cap (f(A))^c = \emptyset \ \Rightarrow \not\exists x \in A $ s.t $f(x) \in (f(A))^c$ and $\not\exists x \in A^c $ s.t $f(x) \in f(A)$. Now i want to prove that if there $\exists (f(x_1),\ f(x_2)) \in A$ s.t $ f(x_1)=f(x_2)$ then $x_1=x_2$ and of course $\exists (f(x_1),\ f(x_2)) \in A^c$ s.t $ f(x_1)=f(x_2)$ then $x_1=x_2$
But here I have troubles.