Suppose $A,B\in\mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ are matrices such that $\Vert Ax\Vert _{2}=\Vert Bx\Vert _{2}$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}^{n}$ , does that imply $A=B$ or $A=-B$. I couldn't come up with a counter-example. If the general statement is not true, does it change anything if $A,B$ are also symmetric?
Thanks!
