As a deeply enthusiastic prospective undergraduate student, there are is a fact that i'm still to completely understand about the big $O$ notation, namely:
Let $f(x), g(x) \neq x$ be nonconstant differentiable functions with $f(x), g(x) = O(x)$. Does it necessarily follow that
$\dfrac{f(x) - x}{f(x) - g(x)} = \dfrac{O(x) - x}{O(x)} = O(1)$ ?
My attempt:
Since $f(x), g(x) = O(x)$, it follows that $f'(x), g'(x) =O(1)$, hence by the L'-Hopital Rule, we have $\lim_{x \to \infty} \dfrac{f(x) - x}{f(x) - g(x)} = \dfrac{O(1)}{O(1)}=O(1)$, as required ?